I found an on-line version of the original text at the Document Gallica site.
[gallica.bnf.fr/scripts/ConsultationTout.exe?O=N089293&T=2] no longer exists
It shows how Perrault's orthography differs from Modern French. It does not solve the question whether he wrote "verre" meaning glass, or misspelled "vair" meaning fur. Apart from the word "verre" there is nothing in the description that suggests glass. No brittleness or light reflections suggested. The ladies in the story don't seem to have any problems with the glassy character of the slippers or shoes. It's just the size that doesn't fit for anyone except Cinderella. If Perrault really meant glass, then it may have been a poetic invention of his. His genius "reinventing" some details of the story, in this case helped by the phonetic ressemblence between "vair" and "verre". Glass suggesting purity and magic. But was it a (sub)conscious choice? He simply may have misunderstood an oral version of the existing popular story, and have been charmed by what he thought was a story about glittering glass slippers.
If he meant "vair" "fur" he must either have been a bad speller (very unlikely) or there must have been an eighteenth century orthographic variant for "vair".( Possible but not likely.) Anyway nobody mistranslated "vair" as "glass". It's Perrault himself who writes "verre". It should also be taken into account that in the oldest Chinese version of the story, it was a "golden" slipper. See
surlalunefairytales.com/cinderella/history.html [webpage no longer exists]
Golden suggests both "expensiveness" and "light-reflection". So both "vair" ( expensive ermine-like fur) and "verre" ( glitter) fit the poetic core of this fairy-tale, of which there exists an unending list of variants. Some even Native American.
The first edition of Perrault's stories contained illustrations, but I could not find out if there was any of them displaying Cendrillon/Cinderella 's "pantoufles de verre". Though Hugh Rawson in his "Devious Derivations" (1994)correctly signals that the glass slippers cannot have been born from a mistranslation from French to English, he does not really solve the riddle how "vair" became "verre". My own preferred hypothesis is that Perrault "mis-understood" the oral version of an existing folktale. But who can prove that it was not just a stroke of genius: Perrault sensing that a "glass" slipper had infinitely more poetic potential than the obsolete "fur slipper", and consciously re-shaping this detail?
Chi lo sa ? As long as philology has not decisively proved it was some sort of linguistic misunderstanding or orthographic error, there should remain room for "poetic invention" as the explanation. In that case we owe a wonderful detail to one man's creative genius. In this case not a metamorphosis of details brought about by the " anonymous folk", but by an identifiable author. Alas there is no proof, no certainty.
https://www.snopes.com/fact-check/glass-slippers